A commenter states:
I clearly think something is there on the side of hereditarian causation —– but both my moral and intellectual instincts can’t help but lead me to believe that ‘proving’ as much is, if not exactly beside the point, woefully lacking in claiming to be the ‘solution’ needed.
Either hereditarians are correct or not. If we assume that they are, is it reasonable for them to try to demonstrate this? Here’s what the popular discourse on this subject looks like. You tell me.
He goes on to ask about the possible cultural bias in IQ test.
IQ differences are meaningless, per se. The issue is g. Here’s the g nexus:
If a difference consistently looks like a g difference (phenotypically and endophenotypically) and predicts like a g difference (industrially, academically, and otherwise socially), and factor analysis show that a g interpretation is consistent with the data, it’s a g difference.